I wanted to highlight another bit from my recent interview with Bruce Meyer, a visiting scholar here at AEI and a professor at the University of Chicago's Harris School of Public Policy, on inequality and poverty.
In this exchange, we discuss whether US living standards have really been stagnant for decades as some researchers claim:
Pethokoukis: When people talk about inequality, usually in the next breath they'll say, “Listen, that top 1% is now getting a lot of the income, and at the same time, incomes for the middle class have been stagnant for 30, 40, maybe 50 years.” Those two facts are used together, I think, to show a relationship between the two. Is that right? Because to me it seems intuitively, how could that possibly be right that the median American is no better off than he was sometime in the 1960s?
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